2020 Summer Olympics

[Big John]

The American announcers don't know how to pronounce Qatar.

It's Equator without the E, right?

It's pronounced like cutter.

[US 89]

The American announcers don't know how to pronounce Qatar.

It's Equator without the E, right?

It's pronounced like cutter.

https://medium.com/the-poleax/how-to-pronounce-qatar-a5ae748fdff6

[english si]

The American announcers don't know how to pronounce Qatar.

BBC going with ka-ta with the stress on the ka (US-English puts the stress on the ta). Not quite the cutter suggested above above. More like catter.

Looking online, it seems like 'gutter' is more authentically Arabic. But English happily pronounces the 's' in Paris, or drop the -en of Antwerpen even though the natives of those places don't, so I don't know why the countries English name should use a 'g' rather than a 'k' sound. Certainly Qatar airlines ads that were on as they sponsored the EUROs used the same pronunciation as the BBC is.

And that high jump shared gold medal is something worthy of a prime time highlights of the day program (even factoring in NBC's apathy towards non-Americans), so there will be more mispronouncing it later!

[hotdogPi]

BBC going with ka-ta with the stress on the ka (US-English puts the stress on the ta).

The only reason to drop the r at the end is if your own accent does so. There's nothing about Qatar itself that makes the r silent.

[kphoger]

The American announcers don't know how to pronounce Qatar.

It's Equator without the E, right?

It's pronounced like cutter.

Not everyone pronounces it the same way–even Arabs.  I used to live with a guy from Saudi Arabia, whose hometown was only about 200 miles from the Qatar border, and he didn't pronounce it as "cutter".

[Roadgeekteen]

https://www.espn.com/olympics/gymnastics/story/_/id/31939969/simone-biles-coming-back-compete-beam-finals

Simone Biles will compete in the balance beam finals

[formulanone]

The American announcers don't know how to pronounce Qatar.

It's Equator without the E, right?

It's pronounced like cutter.

Not everyone pronounces it the same way–even Arabs.  I used to live with a guy from Saudi Arabia, whose hometown was only about 200 miles from the Qatar border, and he didn't pronounce it as "cutter".

Yup, have a co-worker originally from the UAE and he pronounced it "Kuh-TAR". I asked him about actual pronunciation, and he replied that "it depends on where you're from".

Must be a local sibboleth (or is that shibboleth)...

[Roadgeekteen]

I pronounce Qatar "Cutter".

[Rothman]

Welcome Back, Qatar.

[kphoger]

I pronounce Qatar "Cutter".

I suspect you're not an Arab.

[Roadgeekteen]

I pronounce Qatar "Cutter".

I suspect you're not an Arab.

I'm not.

[US 89]

They say "kuh-TAR" on the Qatar Airways commercials, so I'll be going with that...

[Mapmikey]

Tell me, what is the definition of a 'wild pitch'?  According to the MLB definition, it is one 'so errant that the catcher is unable to control it and, as a result, baserunner(s) advance'.  If a pitch is intentionally thrown low into the dirt, then that pitch being 'wild' or not depends on how well the catcher can field it.  This is all rather squirrelly, as it can mean the difference between an out and an advance to first base.  But, of course, that's OK, because sports have subjectivity built in.

This only affects statistics. The baserunners can run at any time, but they risk getting out if they do so at a time when it only delays the catcher for a second or two.

If it's on the third strike, and nobody is on first base, then doesn't the batter get to advance to first base if the pitch is declared 'wild', even though it's called a strike?

If there are 2 outs then it doesn't matter if 1st base is occupied...the batter can advance to first if a 3rd strike hits the ground and the catcher does not tag the batter or get a throw to 1st base in time.

If the batter makes it to first base safely from this, the pitcher and batter are both credited with a strikeout and a wild pitch is assessed to the pitcher or passed ball to the catcher depending upon the pitch itself.

I have seen once or twice a pitcher strike out 4 batters in an inning doing this.  There is technically no limit to how many times this can happen.  i have always wondered if anyone has 5 strikeouts in an inning as a pitcher.

It is also possible to get 6 hits in an inning without a run scoring and wonder if that has ever happened...

[jeffandnicole]

If it's on the third strike, and nobody is on first base, then doesn't the batter get to advance to first base if the pitch is declared 'wild', even though it's called a strike?

It's only ruled a wild pitch (or passed ball) based on the action of the batter/runners. If the batter is declared out before he reaches 1st base, and no advancement is made by any other runner, there's no wild pitch or passed ball called.  If the ball sails over the head of the catcher, or the catcher simply misses the ball, and the ball hits the backstop, bounces back to the catcher and the batter or runner can be thrown out, it's nothing more than a strikeout or caught stealing, based on the situation.

[kphoger]

If there are 2 outs then it doesn't matter if 1st base is occupied...the batter can advance to first if a 3rd strike hits the ground and the catcher does not tag the batter or get a throw to 1st base in time.

If the batter makes it to first base safely from this, the pitcher and batter are both credited with a strikeout and a wild pitch is assessed to the pitcher or passed ball to the catcher depending upon the pitch itself.

What happens if the bases are loaded in such a circumstance?

[Mapmikey]

If there are 2 outs then it doesn't matter if 1st base is occupied...the batter can advance to first if a 3rd strike hits the ground and the catcher does not tag the batter or get a throw to 1st base in time.

If the batter makes it to first base safely from this, the pitcher and batter are both credited with a strikeout and a wild pitch is assessed to the pitcher or passed ball to the catcher depending upon the pitch itself.

What happens if the bases are loaded in such a circumstance?

I've seen this.  Catcher only has to step on home plate.

[Alps]

Tell me, what is the definition of a 'wild pitch'?  According to the MLB definition, it is one 'so errant that the catcher is unable to control it and, as a result, baserunner(s) advance'.  If a pitch is intentionally thrown low into the dirt, then that pitch being 'wild' or not depends on how well the catcher can field it.  This is all rather squirrelly, as it can mean the difference between an out and an advance to first base.  But, of course, that's OK, because sports have subjectivity built in.

This only affects statistics. The baserunners can run at any time, but they risk getting out if they do so at a time when it only delays the catcher for a second or two.

If it's on the third strike, and nobody is on first base, then doesn't the batter get to advance to first base if the pitch is declared 'wild', even though it's called a strike?

If there are 2 outs then it doesn't matter if 1st base is occupied...the batter can advance to first if a 3rd strike hits the ground and the catcher does not tag the batter or get a throw to 1st base in time.

If the batter makes it to first base safely from this, the pitcher and batter are both credited with a strikeout and a wild pitch is assessed to the pitcher or passed ball to the catcher depending upon the pitch itself.

I have seen once or twice a pitcher strike out 4 batters in an inning doing this.  There is technically no limit to how many times this can happen.  i have always wondered if anyone has 5 strikeouts in an inning as a pitcher.

It is also possible to get 6 hits in an inning without a run scoring and wonder if that has ever happened...

It is not possible to get 6 hits in an inning, because 3 hits load the bases, you could pick off players to get 2 outs and reload with 2 more hits, but the next at bat can't be a hit without scoring a run because every base is a force.


Also: https://www.postandcourier.com/sports/five-strikeouts-in-one-inning-how-charlestons-malcolm-van-buren-did-the-impossible/article_c7ea925c-b53b-11e9-87c3-03c636404bdd.html

[kphoger]

From watching the coverage of BMX racing, I have learned something:  The only thing funnier than a Brit trying to pronounce Spanish names is a New Zealander trying to pronounce Spanish names.

[Mapmikey]

Tell me, what is the definition of a 'wild pitch'?  According to the MLB definition, it is one 'so errant that the catcher is unable to control it and, as a result, baserunner(s) advance'.  If a pitch is intentionally thrown low into the dirt, then that pitch being 'wild' or not depends on how well the catcher can field it.  This is all rather squirrelly, as it can mean the difference between an out and an advance to first base.  But, of course, that's OK, because sports have subjectivity built in.

This only affects statistics. The baserunners can run at any time, but they risk getting out if they do so at a time when it only delays the catcher for a second or two.

If it's on the third strike, and nobody is on first base, then doesn't the batter get to advance to first base if the pitch is declared 'wild', even though it's called a strike?

If there are 2 outs then it doesn't matter if 1st base is occupied...the batter can advance to first if a 3rd strike hits the ground and the catcher does not tag the batter or get a throw to 1st base in time.

If the batter makes it to first base safely from this, the pitcher and batter are both credited with a strikeout and a wild pitch is assessed to the pitcher or passed ball to the catcher depending upon the pitch itself.

I have seen once or twice a pitcher strike out 4 batters in an inning doing this.  There is technically no limit to how many times this can happen.  i have always wondered if anyone has 5 strikeouts in an inning as a pitcher.

It is also possible to get 6 hits in an inning without a run scoring and wonder if that has ever happened...

It is not possible to get 6 hits in an inning, because 3 hits load the bases, you could pick off players to get 2 outs and reload with 2 more hits, but the next at bat can't be a hit without scoring a run because every base is a force.


Also: https://www.postandcourier.com/sports/five-strikeouts-in-one-inning-how-charlestons-malcolm-van-buren-did-the-impossible/article_c7ea925c-b53b-11e9-87c3-03c636404bdd.html

Ah but there is this:

Get the 5 hits just like you describe.

So the player batting with 2 outs and bases loaded does the following:  Hits a ball that strikes one of the runners in fair territory.  By rule, the runner is out and the batter is credited with a hit.


It might be possible to get 6 walks without scoring a run, too:  what would happen if after ball 4 on the 6th one, one of the runners sprinted past another before the runner on 3rd reached home (this is an absurdity thought exercise that would essentially require the runner on 2nd forgetting there were 2 outs, not running on a 3-2 pitch and the runner from 1st sprinting right on past the 2nd base runner).

In practice, I'm not entirely clear if I've ever seen even 4 hits in an inning without a run... 

Thanks for the citation on the 5 strikeouts in an inning.

modified to add, then remove 2nd 6-hit scenario after thinking about it more

[kphoger]

Earlier, I was thinking that volleyball was a pretty un-subjective sport.  But then I watched the men's USA vs Argentina match.  An Argentine player went way back to try and save the ball and, in doing so, tripped over the benches.  Play stopped, as it would have stopped if someone had injured an ankle on the court.  The two commentators couldn't agree on whether play should have stopped or not.  One of them said that, since nobody was actually injured and play stoppage isn't in the rules anyway, the game should have continued–same as if the player had just tripped on his shoelaces rather than over the benches–in which case possession should have gone to the US team with Argentina being a man down till he got back into position.

[NWI_Irish96]

Every sport has some rules that are subjective, otherwise sports wouldn't need officials.

However, gymnastics and figure skating are sports where your actual score is decided by judges. There are no panels of judges deciding how many points to award for a Grand Slam.

[hotdogPi]

Chess has only one subjective rule, and that is that you can't try to win by forcing your opponent to run out of time.

[Alps]

Chess has only one subjective rule, and that is that you can't try to win by forcing your opponent to run out of time.

That's not subjective. Once you make your move, if you interfere with your opponent's ability to move a piece or hit the clock, that's interference. You can't force your opponent to run out of time without taking an objective action.

[kphoger]

If the result of this discussion is that chess is a sport but ice skating is not, then–well, then, we need to start all over.

[Scott5114]

If the result of this discussion is that chess is a sport but ice skating is not, then–well, then, we need to start all over.

Or have Olympic chess matches in 2024...